# Understanding the unrealised CGT report

**URL:** <https://community.sharesight.com/t/understanding-the-unrealised-cgt-report/1306>\
**Category:** Sharesight features\
**Created:** [25 April 2023 23:39 UTC](https://community.sharesight.com/t/understanding-the-unrealised-cgt-report/1306 "2023-04-25T23:39:05Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Page:** 1

<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![djb21au](https://sea2.discourse-cdn.com/sharesight/user_avatar/community.sharesight.com/djb21au/32/555_2.png) [@djb21au](https://community.sharesight.com/u/djb21au)\
**Post date:** [25 April 2023 23:39 UTC](https://community.sharesight.com/t/understanding-the-unrealised-cgt-report/1306/1 "2023-04-25T23:39:05Z")

</div>

I’m trying to understand an apparent discrepancy in the unrealised CGT report.

I have a holding with a cost base of $2.20 per share.

 ![CleanShot 2023-04-26 at 09.21.02@2x](https://global.discourse-cdn.com/sharesight/original/1X/4727df11e7e035e54bf4f4d9d030446566fa51b8.png)

However, in the unrealised CGT report, the cost base shows as zero.

 ![CleanShot 2023-04-26 at 09.21.56@2x](https://global.discourse-cdn.com/sharesight/original/1X/c80101c968452035f88a3129763b3d4eabe99983.png)

This is only the case for this particular holding, which makes we wonder if there is some aspect of the holding causing the discrepancy. The investment type is ‘trust units’ – could that be the reason?